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Day1 Complete Tech Quiz Questions

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  SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUIZ FROM E BOOK 1. What are the forces acting on an aircraft in flight? Drag. Thrust. Lift and Weight 2. What is direct lift control? The elevator / stabilizer provide the direct lift control. 3. What are high lift devices? Trailing edge flaps. Leading edge flaps. Slots 4. Define the two major types or Drag. Profile and induced drag which equals total drag 5. What are high drag devices? Trailing edge flaps, spoilers, landing gear, revere thrust, braking parachute. 6. How do you prevent span-vise airflow on a wing especially swept wing? Fences, vortex generators 7. What is the purpose vortex generators and fences? To reduce spanwise airflow and thereby reduce its effects 8. What are winglets and how do they work? Winglets are aerodynamically efficient surfaces located at the wing tips. They are designed to reduce induced drag. They dispense the spanwise airflow from the upper and lower surfaces at different points. 9. How does a forward center of gravity affect the stall speed?  A center of gravity forward of the center of pressure will cause a higher stall speed 10. What advantages does an aircraft gain from a swept swing? High mach cruise speeds, stability in turbulence. 11. Where does a swept wing stall first?  A simple swept or tapered wing will stall at the wing tip first. 12. Explain speed stability. It's the behavior of the speed after a disturbance at a fixed power setting 13. What is Mach Number Mach number is a true airspeed indication, given as a percentage relative to the local speed of sound. 14. What is the critical Mach number (mcrit)? Mcrit is the aircraft's mach speed at which the airflow over a wing becomes sonic. 15. What is Mach tuck? Is the nose down pitching moment an aircraft experiences as it passes it's critical mach number 16. What is the purpose of a mach trimmer?  A Mach trimmer is to automatically compensate for Mach tuck above Mcrit. 17. What are the affects of compressibility? The effect of air being compressed onto a surface resulting in an increase in density and thus dynamic pressure rises above its expected value. 18. What changes the aircrafts angle of attack at the stall? The movement of the center of pressure point at the stall causes a change in the aircraft's angle of attack 19. What happens to the stall speed at very high altitudes? Mach number compressibility effect on the wing results in a higher EAS (actual equivalent airspeed), compressibility error on the IAS increases the stall speed 20. What is super stall? Is a stall from which the aircraft is unable to recover. 21. What is Dutch roll? Dutch roll is an oscillatory Instability. It is the combination of yawing and rolling motions 22. What causes Dutch roll? Swept wings  23. What is the three purposes of spoilers? Roll control, Air speed brakes, and ground lift dumpers 24. What our Krueger flaps? Krueger flaps are leading edge wing flaps used to increase the wing chamber 25. How do flap affect takeoff ground run?  A higher flap within the take off range, will reduce the takeoff' ground run for a given aircraft weight. 26. What ’s  the purpose is of yaw and roll dampers? To prevent Dutch roll and coordinate turns 27. What are the four reasons for a variable-incident tailplane / stabilizer? Provide a balancing force for a large C of G range, cope with large trim changes. Provide balancing force for a large speed range, reduce elevator trim drag. 28. What is a mass balance? It is another form of aerodynamic balance control on a control surface. 29. What are active controls?  A surface that moves automatically / actively in response to non-direct inputs 30. What is engine torque?  A force causing rotation 31. What is specific fuel consumption (SFC)? The quantity / weight (Ib) of fuel consumed per hour divided by the thrust of an engine in pounds 32. Why do operators use reduced de-rated thrust takeoffs in a jet aircraft? To protect engine life and improve reliability, reduce noise. 33. What is the purpose of engine re-light boundaries? To ensure that correct proportion of air is delivered to the engines combustion chamber to restart the engine in flight. 34. Why are bleed valves fitted to gas turbine engines? To provide bleed air for auxiliary systems, to regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections 35. What fuels are commonly used on jet aircraft? Jet A1  –  waxing point of  –  50 C, Jet A - waxing point of -40C. 36. Is there a critical engine on a jet aircraft? No 37. How does INS/IRS find true north? It is aligned to true north by its gyroscopes. 38. What are the advantages of an INS? Very accurate, self-contained system, totally global system enabling aircraft to fly great circle tracks 39. What are the disadvantages of INS? Bounded errors, unbounded errors, Inherent system errors. 40. 40. What does ISA stand for? International standard atmosphere. 41. What is pressure altitude? Pressure altitude or pressure height is the international standard atmosphere (ISA) height above the 29.92 / 1013 pressure datum, at which the pressure value experienced represents that of the level under consideration. 42. How does temperature affect the LSS?  As temperature decreases, the local speed of sound (LSS) decreases 43. What are the airspeed indicator (ASl) / Mach meter indications for a blocked Pitot and or static port?  A blocked static line means that the static pressure in the (ASI) / Mach meter instrument remains a constant value. 44. What is transport wander on an uncorrected gyroscope? Transport wander is a form of apparent wander, Transport wander + apparent wander = total apparent wander.  45. What are the inputs to a GPWS? Barometric altitude for a rate of descent (ROD) calculations. Radio altimeter, Flap position, Gear position. Instrument landing system (ILS) glide slope, Approach minima. Thrust lever position. 46. Tire temperature prior to T/0 depends on what factors? Outside air temperature, Aircraft weight, Taxi time, Amount of braking. 47. Which brake gets the hottest during a landing? The downwind (with a crosswind) wheel brakes 48. What does a constant speed drive unit (CSU) achieve? They maintain the aircraft frequency output of an alternator, normally to 400 Hz 49. What is takeoff run available (TORA)? The usable length of the runway available. i.e. physical length of the runway. 50. What is the take off distance available (TODA)? The length of the usable runway available plus the length of the clearway available 51. How high is the screen height for a jet aircraft? Screen height for a jet aircraft in dry conditions 35ft. 52. What is the runway stopway? Is the length of an unprepared surface at the end of the runway in the direction of the takeoff that is capable of supporting an aircraft if the aircraft has to be stopped during a takeoff run. 53. What is VMCG speed? Is the minimum control speed (directional control) on the ground for a multi engine aircraft at a constant power setting and configuration 54. What is V1 speed? Is the decision speed. 55. What is VR speed? Rotation speed 56. What is Vs speed? Stall speed. 57. What is Va speed? Maneuvering speed 58. What is VMCA speed? Is the minimum control speed (directional control) in the air for a multi engine aircraft in the take-off and climb out configuration. 59. What is the relationship between VMCG and V1? VMCG must be equal to or less than V1 60. What is V2 speed? Is the take off safety speed. 61. What is V3 speed? Is the all engine operating takeoff climb speed the aircraft will achieve at the screen height. 62. What is V4 sped? Is the all engine operating takeoff climb speed the aircraft will achieve by 400ft. 63. What’s maximum range cru ise (MRC)? The speed at which for a given weight and altitude, the maximum fuel mileage is obtained. 64. What is Long range cruise (LRC)? The speed significantly higher than the maximum range speed. 65. What is a cost index? Is a performance management function that optimizes the aircrafts speed for the minimum cost. 66. What is the pressure gradient force? Is a natural force generated by a difference in pressure across a horizontal distance. 67. What is a trough? Is a V-shaped extension of a low pressure system  68. What is an occluded front? Is a combination of both a cold and a warm front. 69. What is windshear? Is any variation of wind speed and or direction from place to place including updrafts and downdrafts. 70. What is a microburst? Is a severe downdraft. 71. What is CAT? Is an acronym for clear air turbulence 72. What is the IT'CZ? The intertropical convergence zone is where converging air masses meet near the thermal equator. 73. What is ETOPS? Ex-tended twin operations 74. What is the lowest usable flight level? Lowest useable en route flight level must be a least 500ft above the absolute minimum altitude. 75. How is RVR reported? Reported at up to 3 points on the runway, at the touch down point, at the mid point, at the stop end. 76. What does it mean if you have a port wind in the northern hemisphere? Means you are flying toward a low pressure system, resulting in a descending flight path for a consistent altimeter pressure setting. 77. What is the gliding distance for an aircraft at 30,00ft? Take the best glide speed and its rate of decent: altitude divided by rate of descent e.g. 30,000/1000 ft/min = 30min; Time x speed per min e.g. 3O x 5nm/min = 150nm. 78. Why does an aircraft descend quicker when it is lighter?  An aircraft is restricted to a maximum speed during descent. 79. What do you need to see to continue at a decision height (DH) for a CAT II la approach? You need a visual reference containing a segment of a least three consecutive lights, the centerline of the approach lights or the touchdown zone lights or the runway centerline lights or edge lights or a combination of these. 80. What are the three types of aquaplaning / hydroplaning? Dynamic. Viscous, Reverted rubber or rubber reversion. 81. What do we call the following: The aircraft mass plus oil, unusable fuel & fixtures?  Answer: Basic Empty Weight 82. What do you call the position from the datum of measurement to the moment?  Answer: The Arm 83. What is the correct format for the Lat & Long of Dubai on a Jepp Chart?  Answer: N _ _ _ _ . _ E _ _ _ _ . _ 84. What risk does cumuliform clouds create when found in stratus cloud?  Answer: Embedded Thunderstorms 85. What system controls the braking during a rejected T/O?  Answer: The Auto Brake System with Anti Skid protection 86. What will occur if the DALR (Dry Adiabatic lapse Rate) ie: Dry Bulb = the SALR (Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate) ie: Wet Bulb?  Answer: A Cloud Base will form Other options: It will rain or the air mass will be unstable 87. For a 2 engine aircraft what are the return airfield requirements ie: How far do you require and adequate A/D to be?  Answer: The airport must be within 60 min SE airspeed unless the company has ETOPS Approval. 88. What are the T/O minima for 2 crew?  Answer: 800m & 0 unless company has dispo & crew are approved

Chapter 3 2011

Jul 12, 2018
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